Re: Why does the Indian usage seem to be there for no reason at times?
Thanks!
Also, could there be an option for 'Sanskritized'? When you look at Thai names especially, there are often 2 or more styles of orthography when transcribed into Latin, e.g. 'Watthana' is the more phonemic spelling while 'Vadhana' is the Sanskrit-style spelling, but both are still pronounced the same way and written the same in Thai. Could there be an option for 'Sanskritized'?