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[Opinions] Actually, Bibles nearly always translate names
Here's a link to a Spanish version of the Bible where Lydia is spelled Lidia:http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=51&chapter=16&version=61&context=chapter(Look at the 14th verse: "Entonces una mujer llamada Lidia, vendedora de púrpura, de la ciudad de Tiatira . . .")On edit: I found the same verse from an Italian Bible. It also uses Lidia: http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=51&chapter=16&verse=14&version=34&context=verse (This is Acts 16:14, by the way.)For the record, I prefer the spelling Lydia, but Lidia is the legitimate Spanish, Portuguese, and Italian form.

This message was edited 4/20/2005, 10:54 PM

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That sounds logical, thoughI meant all English Bibles. Lídia is the Portuguese form of Lydia, and Lidia's the Italian, Spanish, and Polish form. Logically, Bibles in those languages would translate the names accordingly, I would think.
Miranda
"Six hours later I still haven't done my homework, but I did come up with 245 name combos, seven of which I might name my child." — Modified LJ icon quoteProud adopter of 15 punctuation marks.
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Okay then. But since the question ADT asked was whether all Bibles used Lydia, or just all English translations, and you answered all versions, the only logical assumption I could make was that you believed Spanish and Italian Bibles also used Lydia, which is simply not true.
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