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in reply to a message by Andy ;—)
If I understod it correctly Carl/Karl does not mean "free man" but is actually a name derived from a word meaning army. This would mean that the Scandinavian word karl meaning freeman peasant does not really have anything to do with the actual meaning of the name. Or is it possible that there are two different Carl/Karl (but with the same origin); one that derives directly from "heri" and one that was used in Scandinavia to designate a free man? I'm from Sweden and the noun karl is still used here (with the meaning man) and I wonder if one can really dismiss the "free man" meaning completely.
Thank you for all the information. It's very interesting.
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Scully: What I find fantastic is any notion that there are answers beyond the realm of science. The answers are there. You just have to know where to look.
Mulder: That's why they put the "I" in "F.B.I." .
Thank you for all the information. It's very interesting.
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Scully: What I find fantastic is any notion that there are answers beyond the realm of science. The answers are there. You just have to know where to look.
Mulder: That's why they put the "I" in "F.B.I." .
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Replies
Yes, according to the sources I mentioned, the name Karl/Carl most likely has nothing to do with the Swedish "karl" or the German "Kerl." The man/husband derivation is still around, you will find it in many name books. But of course a lot of them just collect information from other name books, so false information can easily spread.
Of course, there may be different derivations developing independently (as I have always fancied to assume for the name Alfred, Al-fred or Alf-red, but never have been able to find any evidence for). But I have never come across a good story explaining the man-Karl line. On the other hand, Kaufmann gives a very plausible explanation of the hari derivation, backing it up with a number of comprehensible parallels.
Of course, there may be different derivations developing independently (as I have always fancied to assume for the name Alfred, Al-fred or Alf-red, but never have been able to find any evidence for). But I have never come across a good story explaining the man-Karl line. On the other hand, Kaufmann gives a very plausible explanation of the hari derivation, backing it up with a number of comprehensible parallels.
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I think that a soldier would by definition be a free man (not a serf or a slave), so it's not too big a jump. You wouldn't give weapons to your slaves, for your own safety, though you would bear arms yourself; and you'd be likely to refer to them as 'boy' or 'girl' even if they were older than you, their owner. Both ways, you'd be the man and they wouldn't. A state that a free peasant would aspire to ...
In Afrikaans, k^rel (there's an e under the little hat!) is pronounced rather like the American way of saying Carol; it means chap or bloke, a man you have an informal relationship with and feel friendly towards. Same word, changed meaning.
In Afrikaans, k^rel (there's an e under the little hat!) is pronounced rather like the American way of saying Carol; it means chap or bloke, a man you have an informal relationship with and feel friendly towards. Same word, changed meaning.
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I think, any connection in terms of content between "hari" and "charal" (Old Norse "karl") would be pure coincidence and cannot serve to reconcile the two theories.
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