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Do you guys think I'll get lots of responses if I ask about where different names come from, or is this something you all know. For example, take a name like Sarah/Sara. I know it comes from the Hebrew "princess", but where do these two spellings themselves come from? Which is older if one is from the other? I'm gonna guess that the original Hebrew name WASN'T Sarah, especially since they use a different alphabet .
I now this site gives "usage", but that isn't necessarily the same thing as derivation, though it probably is in many cases. And Sarah is just my example. There are lots of names I wonder about, but I don't know if the questions are even worth asking, because a lot of it might be "shrouded in the mists of time", as they say.
SÁRA Usage: Hungarian
SARA Usage: Arabic, Greek, Spanish, Italian, Portuguese, Scandinavian
SARAH Usage: English, French, German, Jewish, Biblical
When I talk to my husband tonight he is gonna roll his eyes at me. Yesterday I was talking about becoming a Creative Memories consultant, and tonight it will be about writing a book. Hee hee -- poor guy.
I now this site gives "usage", but that isn't necessarily the same thing as derivation, though it probably is in many cases. And Sarah is just my example. There are lots of names I wonder about, but I don't know if the questions are even worth asking, because a lot of it might be "shrouded in the mists of time", as they say.
SÁRA Usage: Hungarian
SARA Usage: Arabic, Greek, Spanish, Italian, Portuguese, Scandinavian
SARAH Usage: English, French, German, Jewish, Biblical
When I talk to my husband tonight he is gonna roll his eyes at me. Yesterday I was talking about becoming a Creative Memories consultant, and tonight it will be about writing a book. Hee hee -- poor guy.
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Replies
One answer must be that names adapt to the countries' languages. Both their spelling and their pronounciation can be altered. I give you an example:
Hungary is a list-giving country where you can choose names for your kids only from a list made up by the Academy of Sciences. If you want a name that is not on the list, you can make a request for it.
The name Imogen was added recently, in two forms: Imogén and Imodzsen.
Imogén has more or less kept the spelling, but is pronounced EE-mo-gayn (g as in go), according to the Hungarian language.
Imodzsen is pronounced like the original Imogen, but is written down differently, because we mark the soft g sound (like in geography) with the dzs combination.
Is it clearer now?
Hungary is a list-giving country where you can choose names for your kids only from a list made up by the Academy of Sciences. If you want a name that is not on the list, you can make a request for it.
The name Imogen was added recently, in two forms: Imogén and Imodzsen.
Imogén has more or less kept the spelling, but is pronounced EE-mo-gayn (g as in go), according to the Hungarian language.
Imodzsen is pronounced like the original Imogen, but is written down differently, because we mark the soft g sound (like in geography) with the dzs combination.
Is it clearer now?
1
Going by the development of the Hebrew language you are probably right. Sara may be older than Sarah. No vowels were written out in ancient Hebrew (and aren't in modern except children's books and difficult words). But at one point the massorets (the scholars who passed on and watched over the biblical scriptures) were afraid the meaning might get lost on the way and so they added consonants at certain places indicating in fact vowels. A J would mark an I, an Aleph would stand for an A (the Greeks made it an A later), and also an H would be added, where an A was not written out. Like in Sarah.
Later the massorets invented a system of little dots and lines to indicate the actual vowels. But usually the additional consonants were kept. (They had a funny name: "mater lectionis" = "mother of reading".) This applies to vocabulary words, with names I'm not sure. (It has nothing to do with the alphabet though.)
Now in the case of Sara/Sarah I don't know. In the bible you will only find Sarah, but in the Greek version of the Hebrew bible there is Sarra with a doubled R (for whatever reason), and the Latin Vulgata kept it that way.
Andy ;—)
Later the massorets invented a system of little dots and lines to indicate the actual vowels. But usually the additional consonants were kept. (They had a funny name: "mater lectionis" = "mother of reading".) This applies to vocabulary words, with names I'm not sure. (It has nothing to do with the alphabet though.)
Now in the case of Sara/Sarah I don't know. In the bible you will only find Sarah, but in the Greek version of the Hebrew bible there is Sarra with a doubled R (for whatever reason), and the Latin Vulgata kept it that way.
Andy ;—)
1
I knew that about the vowels. My husband studied Arabic for awhile and I tried to get him to teach me once, but I'm not exactly so hot with languages. Give me a trig proof or algebraic equation any day!! I would like to study Hebrew and Greek sometime though
I think the different versions of names in the Bible is one of the reasons that I always wonder about this. I know that some of them are the differences in the OT and NT being written in Hebrew and Greek, but then again, once you translate it into English, why not translate it the same?
For example, Rebekah is in the OT, but when she's mentioned in the NT it's Rebecca. And then there is Isaiah/Isaias, etc. etc. Why change when you are translating into the same language?
Another one is Elisabeth/Elizabeth. In the King James it's an s, but a lot of the other versions have the z. I don't know why James and his men decided on Elisabeth, but why are the newer versions changing it to Elizabeth? Isn't the Hebrew's transliteration normally spelled with an s?
okay I'm rambling now I guess. And it's not always Bible names I wonder about, they are just the most common. I also like tracing names too, for example, how Jack is a form of John type of thing.
I think the different versions of names in the Bible is one of the reasons that I always wonder about this. I know that some of them are the differences in the OT and NT being written in Hebrew and Greek, but then again, once you translate it into English, why not translate it the same?
For example, Rebekah is in the OT, but when she's mentioned in the NT it's Rebecca. And then there is Isaiah/Isaias, etc. etc. Why change when you are translating into the same language?
Another one is Elisabeth/Elizabeth. In the King James it's an s, but a lot of the other versions have the z. I don't know why James and his men decided on Elisabeth, but why are the newer versions changing it to Elizabeth? Isn't the Hebrew's transliteration normally spelled with an s?
okay I'm rambling now I guess. And it's not always Bible names I wonder about, they are just the most common. I also like tracing names too, for example, how Jack is a form of John type of thing.
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Hi!
In fact I have got the same kind of questions. I have always wondered why the translators of the Hebrew bible (and the New Testament authors following them) changed so many names. Why Rebekka from Rivka(h)? Why Elisabet, Elisabeth (different T-character in the end! Why?) and Eleisabeth for Elisheva? - There must be some literature about this, but I haven't dug up anything.
Some characters of the Hebrew language just don't exist in Greek or Latin, so this explains some of the changes. Also I can imagine, that in many cases the translators would adapt names to something like "Greek style", but this doesn't explain it all. The Greeks obviously loved the letter S at the end of male names and made up THOMAS from THEOM and JONAS from JONA. Maybe some were just a little careless, a steady source of inaccuracies.
With S or Z in Elizabeth I once read something, why it was changed in the 16. (?) century. It had something to do with Queen Elizabeth, but I don't remember. Anybody else knows?
Sometimes names are changed because of wrong etymology (even deliberately): Take ANTHONY which had no H until the 15. cent., when someone thought, it had something to do with the Greek wort "anthos" (flower). Or CARMEN, which was (Lady of the) Carmel, but was assimilated to the word for "song, charm".
I only recently learned about JOHN and JACK, and I found this quite interesting.
Andy ;—)
In fact I have got the same kind of questions. I have always wondered why the translators of the Hebrew bible (and the New Testament authors following them) changed so many names. Why Rebekka from Rivka(h)? Why Elisabet, Elisabeth (different T-character in the end! Why?) and Eleisabeth for Elisheva? - There must be some literature about this, but I haven't dug up anything.
Some characters of the Hebrew language just don't exist in Greek or Latin, so this explains some of the changes. Also I can imagine, that in many cases the translators would adapt names to something like "Greek style", but this doesn't explain it all. The Greeks obviously loved the letter S at the end of male names and made up THOMAS from THEOM and JONAS from JONA. Maybe some were just a little careless, a steady source of inaccuracies.
With S or Z in Elizabeth I once read something, why it was changed in the 16. (?) century. It had something to do with Queen Elizabeth, but I don't remember. Anybody else knows?
Sometimes names are changed because of wrong etymology (even deliberately): Take ANTHONY which had no H until the 15. cent., when someone thought, it had something to do with the Greek wort "anthos" (flower). Or CARMEN, which was (Lady of the) Carmel, but was assimilated to the word for "song, charm".
I only recently learned about JOHN and JACK, and I found this quite interesting.
Andy ;—)
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