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Help[Facts] Re: Baradin
in reply to a message by Andy
Hi, Andy.
Yes, it is possible that the resemblance of the Hebrew characters R and D caused the change. But why not to assume that the change was from Barad to Badad? Are there some arguments coming from Hebrew?
About the -in ending: Since the discussed name Baradin was feminine, I assume the final -in (-ine) was an ending to produce a female name based on a male name.
Yes, it is possible that the resemblance of the Hebrew characters R and D caused the change. But why not to assume that the change was from Barad to Badad? Are there some arguments coming from Hebrew?
About the -in ending: Since the discussed name Baradin was feminine, I assume the final -in (-ine) was an ending to produce a female name based on a male name.
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Replies
Hi, Christo!
Yes, the argument is: time. The Hebrew text is the original and the Greek text is a translation. As far as I know no changes were made from the latter to the former. The Jews were always very fussy about the bible text and if they had made any changes, they would most likely have noted them. And most important: it's the Hebrew characters that look alike, not the Greek.
So we would have to assume that the translators could refer to an older (more original) Hebrew text, which later was misspelt in the Hebrew bible. It would be interesting to see whether this passage is part of the scrolls from Qumran and if so, what we would find there.
What is funny: None of my bible dictionaries has either Barad or Badad …
The -in ending: If it was French and feminine, it should be -ine, so I don't know what other language it could be. Definitely not Hebrew.
Andy ;—)
Yes, the argument is: time. The Hebrew text is the original and the Greek text is a translation. As far as I know no changes were made from the latter to the former. The Jews were always very fussy about the bible text and if they had made any changes, they would most likely have noted them. And most important: it's the Hebrew characters that look alike, not the Greek.
So we would have to assume that the translators could refer to an older (more original) Hebrew text, which later was misspelt in the Hebrew bible. It would be interesting to see whether this passage is part of the scrolls from Qumran and if so, what we would find there.
What is funny: None of my bible dictionaries has either Barad or Badad …
The -in ending: If it was French and feminine, it should be -ine, so I don't know what other language it could be. Definitely not Hebrew.
Andy ;—)
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Hi, Andy.
I am not able in any way to access the original O.T. text in Hebrew. If you are sure that there is Bedad (as in Latine Vulgata), I am to agree.
We suppose that both Greek Septaguinta (250 BC approx.) and Latine Vulgata (AD 390 approx.) are two translations of the same text in Hebrew. I cannot decide which translation introduced the error and which name is the original one: Bedad or Barad.
Of cource, the final -in(e) is European, not Hebrew. Claire wrote that Baradin was the name of a Jewish woman from Netherlands, born around 1914.
Greetings.
I am not able in any way to access the original O.T. text in Hebrew. If you are sure that there is Bedad (as in Latine Vulgata), I am to agree.
We suppose that both Greek Septaguinta (250 BC approx.) and Latine Vulgata (AD 390 approx.) are two translations of the same text in Hebrew. I cannot decide which translation introduced the error and which name is the original one: Bedad or Barad.
Of cource, the final -in(e) is European, not Hebrew. Claire wrote that Baradin was the name of a Jewish woman from Netherlands, born around 1914.
Greetings.
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